King James Video Ministries

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1611 or 1769?

In this video I look at the changes to the Bible that occurred between 1611 and 1769. I will show that these changes are based on font, spelling ...

Posted by Bryan Denlinger on February 22, 2011 at 10:39 PM 2797 Views

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2 Comments

Reply Bryan Denlinger
12:25 PM on May 8, 2011 
[/Robert]

There are many places in the Bible that warn against adding to or taking away from scripture. (Revelation 22:18-19, Proverbs 30:5-6, to name a few.) The new version editors go to the Roman Catholic church to obtain their corrupt Greek manuscripts, so that they can change the words found in the KJV. Versions like the NIV often add words without ANY Greek manuscript support!

If someone is using a new version in ignorance, than it is NOT a sin. If however they are using their new version KNOWING where it came from, then it is a sin.

The early Christians did NOT use the Septuagint. You have believed a lie. The earliest copies of the Septuagint were all written AFTER the completion of the New Testament. Please do some research into this issue. The Septuagint fable is used by the Roman Catholic church to justify the Apocryphal books. Here is a good article which will better explain things: http://chick.com/information/bibleversions/articles/septuagint.as
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A Spanish Bible? There are some good ones out there which are based on the KJV. I have heard good reports on the "Reina Valera Gómez 2010" Bible. They are available on www.chick.com
Reply Robert
11:03 PM on May 7, 2011 
I would like to know where in the bible it states that reading a new translation makes one a sinner? The apostles and the early church would use the Septuagint which was a new translation of the Old Testament. Also, what about my Spanish speaking friends, they cannot use the KJV.